AccountingQA Latest Questions

Astha
AsthaLeader
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Revaluation
  2. Simerpreet Helpful CMA Inter qualified
    This answer was edited.

    Revaluation of Assets is an adjustment made in the carrying value of the fixed asset in case the company finds there is a difference between the current price and the market value of the asset. Generally, the value of the asset decreases due to depreciation but in some cases like inflation in the ecRead more

    Revaluation of Assets is an adjustment made in the carrying value of the fixed asset in case the company finds there is a difference between the current price and the market value of the asset. Generally, the value of the asset decreases due to depreciation but in some cases like inflation in the economy, it may increase. so, in order to know the correct value of the asset Revaluation is to be done.

    Accounting standard allows two models.

    • Cost model
    • Revaluation model

    Under the cost model, the carrying value of fixed assets equals their historical cost less accumulated depreciation and accumulated impairment losses.

    For Example, Amazon ltd purchased a Plant for 5,00,000 on January 1, 2010, with a useful life of 10 years, and uses straight-line depreciation.

    Here, the journal entry would be passed as

    As the useful life of the asset is 20 years, so the yearly depreciation would be

    5,00,000/10 i.e. 50,000.

    So the accumulated depreciation at the end of December 31, 2012, would be 50,000×2= 1,00,000 and

    the carrying amount would be 5,00,000-1,00,000= 4,00,000.

    Under the Revaluation method, the assets are revalued at their current market value. If there is an increase in the value of an asset, the difference between the asset’s market value and current book value is recorded as a revaluation surplus.

    For Example, Amazon ltd purchased an asset two years ago at a cost of 2,00,000. Depreciation @ 10% under straight-line method.

    Therefore, the accumulated depreciation for two years would be 40,000,

    i.e. 20,000 for a year.

    Carrying cost of the asset = 1,60,000

    Assuming, the company revalues its assets and finds that the worth of assets is 1,85,000.

    Under this method, the company needs to record 25,000 as a surplus.

    Accounting entry for the above will be

    Depreciation calculated during the third year would be based on the new carrying value of 1,60,000.

    Therefore, Depreciation for the 3rd year= 1,60,000/3

    = 53,333.33

    Accounting entry:

    Alternatively, the incremental depreciation due to the revaluation i.e. 13,333.33 can be charged to the revaluation surplus account.

    In case, if there is a revaluation loss, the entries would be interchanged.

    In case of admission of a partner, the new partner may not agree with the value of assets as stated in the balance sheet, with time the values may have arisen or may have fallen, so in order to bring them to their correct values revaluation is done so that the new partner doesn’t suffer.

    Where the assets and liabilities are to be shown in the books at the revised (new) values after the admission of the new partner.

    The accounting entries are

    1. For Increase in the value of an asset

    2. For a decrease in the value of an asset

    3. For transfer of profit on revaluation i.e. if the total of credit side exceeds the debit side.

    4. For transfer of loss on revaluation i.e. if the total of debit side exceeds the credit side.

    Note: If the total of both sides is equal it signifies that there is no profit or loss on the revaluation of assets. Hence no entry is to be passed.

    After preparing for the journal entry, a revaluation ledger account is also prepared wherein the accounts carrying a debit balance are transferred to the debit side and the accounts carrying a credit balance are transferred to the credit side.

    In the case of retirement of a partner, the same journal entries are to be passed as in the case of Admission of a partner for revaluation of assets.

    Generally, the value of an asset decreases with time but it may increase in certain circumstances especially in inflationary economies.

    Conclusion

    An entity should do the revaluation of its assets because revaluation provides the present value of assets owned by an entity and upward revaluation is beneficial for the entity and hence the company can charge more depreciation on upward revaluation and can get tax benefits.

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prashant06
prashant06
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DrawingsIncome Statement
  2. Radha M.Com, NET
    This answer was edited.

    Whenever the proprietor/owner of a business withdraws cash or goods from the business for his/her personal use, we call it drawings. For example, Alex, proprietor of a soap manufacturing company, takes 50 pack of soaps costing 30 each for his personal use. So, 1,500 (50*30) will be considered as draRead more

    Whenever the proprietor/owner of a business withdraws cash or goods from the business for his/her personal use, we call it drawings. For example, Alex, proprietor of a soap manufacturing company, takes 50 pack of soaps costing 30 each for his personal use. So, 1,500 (50*30) will be considered as drawings of Alex. One important thing to note here is whenever goods are withdrawn for personal use they are valued at cost.

    Drawings are not an asset/liability/expense/income to the business. The drawings account is a contra-equity account. A contra-equity account is a capital account with a negative balance i.e. debit balance. It reduces the owner’s equity/capital.

    Drawings being a contra-equity account has a debit balance, reducing the owner’s capital in the business. This is because withdrawals for personal use represent a reduction of the owner’s equity in the business.

    Drawings are not shown in the Income Statement as they are neither an expense nor an income for the business. However, the following journal entries are passed to record drawings for the year:

    Drawings A/c is debited because it reduces the owner’s capital. Cash/Purchases A/c is debited as a withdrawal reduces the assets of the business.

    At the end of the year, drawings A/c are closed by transferring it to the owner’s capital A/c. We post the following entry to close the drawings A/c at the end of the year:

    In the balance sheet, drawings are shown by deducting it from the owner’s capital A/c.

    Let us take our earlier example of Alex. He withdrew soaps worth 1,500. At the end of the year, his capital was worth 5,500. The journal entry for recording the drawings is as follows:

    In the balance sheet, drawings worth 1,500 are shown as follows:

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Aditi
Aditi
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  2. Mehak
    This answer was edited.

    What is Inventory? Inventory refers to the stock of goods or raw materials a business uses to produce the final goods sold to the customers. What is the Inventory Turnover Ratio? Inventory Turnover Ratio is the financial ratio that shows how efficiently a business sells and replenishes its inventoryRead more

    What is Inventory?

    Inventory refers to the stock of goods or raw materials a business uses to produce the final goods sold to the customers.

    What is the Inventory Turnover Ratio?

    Inventory Turnover Ratio is the financial ratio that shows how efficiently a business sells and replenishes its inventory. It shows how well a business manages its inventory.

    Inventory Turnover ratio is calculated as follows:

    Inventory Turnover Ratio = Cost of goods sold / Average Inventory 

    where Average Inventory = (Inventory at the beginning of the year + Inventory at the end of the year) / 2

    If inventory turnover is high, it means products are selling quickly. But if it’s too high, the company might not have enough stock, leading to fewer sales.

    If turnover is low, there are slow sales or too much stock. That can lead to higher storage costs and obsolete products. It is important to find the right balance between the two.

    Why is the Cost of Goods Sold taken as a numerator instead of revenue while calculating the Inventory Turnover Ratio?

    The cost of goods sold is the sum of all the direct costs involved in the production of goods. On the other hand, Revenue is the total amount of money earned through the sale of goods and services.

    The cost of goods sold (COGS)  includes materials, labor, and overhead costs. Inventory consists of these costs and hence, it is better to take (COGS) as the numerator.

    Revenue, however, considers things like markups, discounts, and other adjustments that don’t directly relate to the actual cost of inventory.

    Let us understand it better with the help of an example:

    Suppose the opening inventory is 20,000 and the closing inventory is 10,000. Average inventory can be calculated as (20,000 + 10,000)/2 = 15,000.

    If the cost of goods sold is 45,000 the Inventory turnover ratio comes out to be 45,000/15,000 = 3.

    On the other hand, if the revenue of 60,000 is taken as the numerator, the Inventory turnover ratio comes out to be 60,000/15,000 = 4

    A high inventory turnover ratio shows that the inventory is moving faster than it is which is misleading for the stakeholders.

    Hence, the Cost of goods sold is taken as the numerator for the calculation of the Inventory turnover ratio.

     

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Nistha
Nistha
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Journal EntryRentRent Received in Advance
  2. Simerpreet Helpful CMA Inter qualified
    This answer was edited.

    Before starting with the main discussion, let me give you a brief explanation of what rent received is When a business or an organization rents out its unused property to earn some extra income and receive some amount from it, that amount of money is said to be rent received. Rent can be monthly, quRead more

    Before starting with the main discussion, let me give you a brief explanation of what rent received is

    When a business or an organization rents out its unused property to earn some extra income and receive some amount from it, that amount of money is said to be rent received.

    Rent can be monthly, quarterly, half-yearly, or yearly rent depending upon the organization’s agreement.

    The journal entry for rent received will be

    Here, Cash account is debited due to the increase in assets or because of a real account. Rent account is credited due to the increase in income or because of the nominal account.

    However, Rent received in advance means the amount of rent that is not yet due but is received in advance. It is treated as a current liability because the benefit related is yet to be provided to the tenant.

    The Journal entry for Rent received in advance will be-

    Here, rent is debited due to a decrease in income.

    Rent received in Advance is credited due to an increase in liability.

    For Example, Johnson company rented out a part of its building that was not used to earn some extra income from it. The monthly rent was fixed as 20000. Johnson company follows calendar year as their accounting year. The tenant, therefore, paid 4 months advance rent to Johnson company i.e. the tenant in January gave his advance rent for February, March, April, and May.

    While receiving the rent in the month of January. The journal entry would be

    Now, the adjustment entry of rent received in advance would be

    The rent received in advance will also be posted individually in each month of February, March, April, and May as

    Furthermore, Rent received in advance is deducted from the amount of rent in the income and expenditure account and thereafter the amount received in advance is posted on the liability side of the Balance sheet.

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Bonnie
BonnieCurious
In: >

  2. SidharthBadlani CA Inter Student
    This answer was edited.

    Net credit sales can be defined as the total sales made by a business on credit over a given period of time less the sales returns and allowances and discounts such as trade discounts. Net Credit Sales = Gross Credit Sales – Returns – Discounts – Allowances. Credit sales can be calculated from the ARead more

    Net credit sales can be defined as the total sales made by a business on credit over a given period of time less the sales returns and allowances and discounts such as trade discounts.

    Net Credit Sales = Gross Credit Sales – Returns – Discounts – Allowances.

    Credit sales can be calculated from the Accounts receivable/ Bills Receivable/ Debtors figure in the Balance Sheet. It will be normally shown under the Current Assets head in the Balance Sheet.

    Credit sales = Closing debtors + Receipts – Opening debtors.

    Alternatively, you may observe the bills receivable ledger account to locate the figure of credit sales.

     

    Net Credit Sales and related terms

    Before we try to understand the concept of net credit sales with an example, let us discuss the term sales return. Sales return means the goods returned by the customer to the seller. It may be due to defects or any other reasons.

    Now let us take an example. John is a retail businessman. He sells smartphones. He buys 100 smartphones from Vivo on credit. The smartphones are worth ₹1.5 lahks. He then returns smartphones worth 20,000 rupees to Vivo. He also gets an allowance of rupees 5,000 from Vivo.

    In the above example, the credit sales of Vivo are of rupees 1.5 lakh. The net credit sales is of

    1.5 lakh – 20,000 – 5, 000 = 1.25 lakh rupees.

    Importance of Net Credit Sales

    • Net Credit Sales figure together with the accounts receivable figure acts as an indicator of the credit policy of the company.
    • It offers insights into the ability of the company to meet short-term cash obligations.
    • The credit policy also affects the total current assets that the company has in the manifestation of Accounts Receivable

    Advantages and Disadvantages of Credit Sales.

    Advantages 

    • Increased Sales – The credit Policy facilitates increased sales for the company. The company can attract more customers with a liberal credit policy. For example, Apple got more customers when it started to sell its products on an EMI basis.
    • Customer Loyalty / Retention- Regular customers can be retained and made to feel honored by offering them more liberal credit terms.

    Disadvantages 

    • Delay in Cash Collection – Credit Sales imply that the company would get cash on a delayed basis. This money could have otherwise been put to use for some other profitable venture or could have borne interest for the company
    • Collection Expenses– The company had to incur additional expenditures for collecting money from debtors.
    • Risk of Bad Debts – With credit sales, there is always the risk that the buyer may become bankrupt and may not be able to pay the money due to the seller.
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Jayesh Gupta
Jayesh GuptaCurious
In: >

  2. Naina@123 (B.COM and CMA-Final)
    This answer was edited.

    A cheque that has been issued but yet not presented to the bank for payment is known as an unpresented cheque Generally what happens is when a cheque is issued to a party or say, creditor, the business immediately records them in the bank column of the cash book but the creditor might not present thRead more

    A cheque that has been issued but yet not presented to the bank for payment is known as an unpresented cheque

    Generally what happens is when a cheque is issued to a party or say, creditor, the business immediately records them in the bank column of the cash book but the creditor might not present them immediately to the bank for payment on the same date. The bank will only debit the account when it will be presented to it, therefore as long as the cheque remains unpresented there will be a difference in both the books i.e cash book and passbook.

    Let me give you a short example of the above treatment

    Suppose on 27th January, in the books of Mr. Shyam, the balance of the bank column as per the cash book is Rs 10,000. He received a cheque of Rs 5,000 from Mr. Hari, one of his debtors, which was sent to the bank for collection. The amount of the cheque was not collected by the bank until 31st January. Due to this, there arises a difference of Rs 5,000 in the cash book and pass book of Mr. Shyam.

    Following will be the entry in Mr. Shyam cash book and passbook

    In the books of Mr. Shaym

    Cash book (bank column only)

    Date Particulars Bank (Rs) Date Particulars Bank (Rs)
    27th Jan To balance b/d 10,000
    27th Jan To Hari 5,000
    31st Jan By balance c/d 15,000
    15000 15000

      Mr. Shyam

       Bank Statement

    Date Particulars Debit (Withdraw) Credit (Deposite) Debit or Credit Balance
    31st Jan To balance b/d credit 10,000

    How it is treated in the bank reconciliation statement?

    There lies a temporary difference in both the books as the represented cheques will eventually be presented. Therefore we will not alter the cash book. The bank statement shows the greater amount of Rs 5,000 as compared to the cashbook, therefore we will debit the amount of unpresented cheque which will eventually make it balance to the level of bank statement.

     

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Bonnie
BonnieCurious
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Balance SheetCalls in Advance
  2. Radha M.Com, NET
    This answer was edited.

    Let us begin with a short explanation of what Calls-in-Advance is: Whenever a company accepts money from its shareholders for calls not yet made, then we call it calls-in-advance. To put it in even simpler terms, it is the amount not yet called up by the company but paid by the shareholder. An imporRead more

    Let us begin with a short explanation of what Calls-in-Advance is:

    Whenever a company accepts money from its shareholders for calls not yet made, then we call it calls-in-advance. To put it in even simpler terms, it is the amount not yet called up by the company but paid by the shareholder. An important thing to note here is that a company can accept calls-in-advance from its shareholders only when authorized by its Articles of Association.

    Calls-in-advance is treated as the company’s liability because it has received the money in advance, which has not yet become due. Till the amount becomes due, it will be treated as a current liability of the company.

    The journal entry for recording calls-in-advance is as follows:

    The money received from the shareholder is an asset for the company and therefore Bank A/c is debited with the amount received as calls-in-advance. The calls-in-advance A/c is credited because it is a liability for the company.

    Since Calls-in-Advance is a liability, it is shown in the Equities and Liabilities part of the Balance Sheet under the head Current Liabilities and sub-head Other Current Liabilities.

    For better understanding, we will take an example,

    ABC Ltd. made the first call of 3 per share on its 10,00,000 equity shares on 1st May. Max, a shareholder, holding 5,000 shares paid the final call amount 2 along with the first call money. Now let me show the journal entry to record calls-in-advance.

    In the Balance Sheet, I will show calls-in-advance in the following manner,

    The calls-in-advance of 10,000 is shown under the Equities and Liabilities side of the balance sheet under the head current liabilities and sub-head other current liabilities. It will be shown as a liability till the final call money becomes due. The amount received by the company from Max is shown on the Assets side of the balance sheet under head current assets and under the sub-head cash and cash equivalents.

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Ayushi
AyushiCurious
In: >

  2. Ayushi Curious Pursuing CA
    This answer was edited.

    No, they are not the same. They are both used to measure the short term liquidity of a business but their approach is different. Following are the differences between the two : Let’s take an example. Following is the balance sheet of X Ltd: Hence, as per the following information, Current Ratio = CuRead more

    No, they are not the same. They are both used to measure the short term liquidity of a business but their approach is different. Following are the differences between the two :

    Let’s take an example.

    Following is the balance sheet of X Ltd:

    Hence, as per the following information,

    Current Ratio = Current Assets / Current Liabilities

      = Inventories + Trade debtors + Bills receivables + Cash  and bank + Prepaid Expenses / Trade Creditors + Bills Payables + Outstanding Salaries

    = ₹85,000 + ₹2,50,000+ ₹95,000 + ₹1,50,000 + ₹10,000/ ₹2,00,000 + ₹75,000 + ₹25,000

    = ₹6,00,000 / ₹3,00,000

    = 2/1 or 2:1

    Quick Ratio = Quick Assets / Current Liabilities

     = Trade debtors + Bills receivables + Cash and bank / Trade Creditors + Bills Payables + Outstanding Salaries

    = ₹2,50,000+ ₹95,000 + ₹1,50,000 / ₹2,00,000 + ₹75,000 + ₹25,000

    = ₹5,05,000/ ₹3,00,000

    = 41 / 25 or 1.68 : 1

    Let’s discuss both ratios in detail.

    1. Current ratio:

    The current ratio represents the relationship between current assets and current liabilities

    Current ratio =  Current Assets/Current Liabilities

    It measures the adequacy of the current assets to current liabilities. The main question this ratio tries to answer is: – “Does your business have enough current assets to meet the payment schedule of its current debts with a margin of safety for possible losses in current assets?”

    The generally acceptable current ratio is 2:1.  But it depends on the characteristics of the assets of a business to judge whether a specific ratio is satisfactory or not.

    2. Quick Ratio: Quick ratio is the ratio between quick assets and current liabilities. It is also known as the Acid Test Ratio. By quick assets, we mean cash or the assets that can be quickly converted into cash ( near cash assets)

    Quick Assets = Current Assets – Inventories – Prepaid assets

     Quick ratio =  Quick Assets/Current Liabilities

    Inventories are not considered near cash assets.

    The quick ratio is a more conservative approach than the current ratio to measure the short term liquidity of a firm.

    It answers the question, “If sales revenues disappear, could my business meet its current obligations with the readily convertible quick funds on hands?”

    1:1 is considered satisfactory unless the majority of the quick asset are accounts receivable and the receivables turnover ratio is low.

     

     

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Aadil
AadilCurious
In: >

book value replacement value depreciable value market value

Depreciation
  2. Vijay Curious M.Com
    This answer was edited.

    The total depreciation of an asset cannot exceed its 3. depreciable value.  Depreciable value means the original cost of the asset minus its residual/salvage value. The asset's original cost is inclusive of the purchase price and other expenses incurred to make the asset operational. To put it simplRead more

    The total depreciation of an asset cannot exceed its 3. depreciable value. 

    Depreciable value means the original cost of the asset minus its residual/salvage value. The asset’s original cost is inclusive of the purchase price and other expenses incurred to make the asset operational. To put it simply,

    The accumulated depreciation on an asset can never exceed its depreciable value because depreciation is a gradual fall in the value of an asset over its useful life. Only a certain percentage of the asset’s book value/original cost is shown as depreciation every year. So, it is impossible/illogical for the accumulated depreciation of an asset to exceed its depreciable value.

    Let me show you an example to make it more understandable,

    Amazon installs machines to automate the job of packing orders. The original cost of the machine is $1,000,000. Now let’s assume,

    The estimated useful life of the machine – 10 years.

    Residual value at the end of 10 years – $50,000.

    Method of depreciation – Straight-line method.

    The depreciable value of the machine will be $950,000 (1,000,000 – 50,000). The depreciation for each year under SLM will be calculated as follows:

    Depreciation = (Original cost of the asset – Residual/Salvage Value) / (Useful life of the asset)

    Applying this formula, $95,000 (1,000,000 – 50,000/10) will be charged as depreciation every year. The accumulated depreciation at the end of 10 years will be $950,000 (95,000*10). As you can see, the accumulated depreciation ($950,000) of the machine does not exceed its depreciable value ($950,000).

    Thus, the total depreciation of an asset cannot be more than its depreciable value.

     

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Jasmeet_Sethi
Jasmeet_SethiCurious
In: >

  2. prashant06 B.com, CMA pursuing
    This answer was edited.

    Let me brief you about the nature of computers, their parts, laptops according to the companies act 2013. Basically, these are treated as non-current tangible fixed assets. This is because these types of equipment are used in business to generate revenue over its useful life for more than a year. AsRead more

    Let me brief you about the nature of computers, their parts, laptops according to the companies act 2013. Basically, these are treated as non-current tangible fixed assets. This is because these types of equipment are used in business to generate revenue over its useful life for more than a year. As per the companies act 2013, the following extract of the depreciation rate chart is given for computers.

    Giving you a short example, suppose M/s spy Ltd purchased 20 computers worth Rs 30000 each. As per the companies act 2013, the computer’s useful life is taken to be 3 years, and the rate of depreciation rate is 63.16%. Applying the WDV method we can calculate depreciation as follows:

     Depreciation as per WDV = (Cost of an asset – salvage value)* Depreciation rate

    So for the first year, the depreciation amount will be

    Cost of computers = Rs 6,00,000 (20*30000)

    Salvage value = NIL

    Rate of depreciation as per the Act = 63.16%

    Therefore depreciation = (6,00,000 – NIL)* 63.16%

    = Rs 3,78,960

    this amount of depreciation will be shown in the profit & loss account as depreciation charged to computers and the same will be adjusted in the balance sheet. The extract of Profit & Loss and corresponding year Balance sheet is shown below.

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